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Patricia's avatar

Thank you! You are so relevant in this piece. And as usual I have learned more about our beautiful Faith 🙏

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Joshua's avatar

About 1 Cor. 3, it's my understanding that in context the builders Paul is referring to are himself and other preachers, not all believers. He's addressing a dispute between factions in Corinth who said they belonged to one preacher or another (Paul, Apollos, Cephas) instead of to Christ. A footnote in my NJB supports this interpretation, for whatever the footnotes are worth.

Here is what J. I. Packer (Anglican, I believe) has to say about Step 4: "At death the souls of believers (i.e., the believers themselves, as ongoing persons) are made perfect in holiness and enter into the worshiping life of heaven (Heb. 12:22-24). In other words, they are glorified. Some, not believing this, posit a purgatorial discipline after death that is really a further stage of sanctification, progressively purifying the heart and refining the character in preparation for the vision of God. But this belief is neither scriptural nor rational, for if at Christ's coming saints alive on earth will be perfected morally and spiritually in the moment of their bodily transformation (1 Cor. 15:51-54), it is only natural to suppose that the same is done for each each believer in the moment of death, when the mortal body is left behind."

My questions:

1. Is Packer's position what you identified as gnosticism above?

2. Related, it's my understanding is even Roman Catholic teaching says martyrs are immediately brought to heaven; if some can be instantaneously sanctified, why not others?

3. As someone raised in more or less Bible-based Protestant traditions, I have an easier time considering the idea of purgatory as sanctification (for purification) than purgatory as punishment satisfying God's justice. If Jesus's atonement was complete, how can there be anything left to pay to satisfy God's justice? Note that I understand discipline (e.g. Heb. 12) to be correction for our good (sanctification) vs. punishment which is simply to satisfy a party wronged. Is this a definitional issue and something else is meant by punishment in the doctrine of purgatory?

4. Furthermore, if Jesus's death was necessary for us to be reconciled to God, how is it then that any amount of suffering on our part for sins committed after baptism could be sufficient to pay our debt to him?

My intent writing here is not to be argumentative; I am honestly looking for answers to these questions and I hope this comment doesn't come across any other way.

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