The KJV translated from multiple sources including the Latin Vulgate and D-R. We know for a fact that they did not translate only from the claimed sources.
And I used the Protestant Strong's Concordance for my examples of Greek words, just to prove that even Protestant sources prove my points.
Can you give some resources? I’m currently in a discussion with a Protestant that claims the KJV is translated from the textus receptus which he claims is translated from Byzantine Greek texts. His theory is that it’s the original manuscripts and the Latin vulgate was wrong.
If you want a smoking gun, take a look at Isaiah 14:12 and the word "lucifer". This is a translation of the Hebrew word "helel" ( הֵילֵל ). The word means either shining one, light bringer or star of the morning. It only occurs here in Scripture. This word was translated in the Latin Vulgate as "lucifer", which is the Latin word for the morning star (the planet Venus). The Douay Rheims also used the same word lucifer in its translation.
The KJV translators were using either the Latin Vulgate or the Douay Rheims Bibles (or both) as one of their sources for their translation, because they made an error in their translation here. They thought that the title "lucifer" here was actually a name, because Jesus tells about Satan falling like lightning (Luke 10) and Christians have for centuries connected the two in studies on the Scripture, because both were punished for their pride. But Jesus doesn't actually connect His statement with that verse from Isaiah. But the KJV translators thought that "lucifer" was another name for Satan, so they kept it as Lucifer and capitalized it, instead of translating it as morning star or light bringer, etc.
If they were truly translating ONLY from the textus receptus and the original Hebrew, they wouldn't have written lucifer.
Are the Greek words you used also in the textus receptus that the KJV is translated from?
The KJV translated from multiple sources including the Latin Vulgate and D-R. We know for a fact that they did not translate only from the claimed sources.
And I used the Protestant Strong's Concordance for my examples of Greek words, just to prove that even Protestant sources prove my points.
Can you give some resources? I’m currently in a discussion with a Protestant that claims the KJV is translated from the textus receptus which he claims is translated from Byzantine Greek texts. His theory is that it’s the original manuscripts and the Latin vulgate was wrong.
I go into more detail here:
https://redpilledcatholicism.substack.com/p/was-the-king-james-version-kjv-bible
If you want a smoking gun, take a look at Isaiah 14:12 and the word "lucifer". This is a translation of the Hebrew word "helel" ( הֵילֵל ). The word means either shining one, light bringer or star of the morning. It only occurs here in Scripture. This word was translated in the Latin Vulgate as "lucifer", which is the Latin word for the morning star (the planet Venus). The Douay Rheims also used the same word lucifer in its translation.
The KJV translators were using either the Latin Vulgate or the Douay Rheims Bibles (or both) as one of their sources for their translation, because they made an error in their translation here. They thought that the title "lucifer" here was actually a name, because Jesus tells about Satan falling like lightning (Luke 10) and Christians have for centuries connected the two in studies on the Scripture, because both were punished for their pride. But Jesus doesn't actually connect His statement with that verse from Isaiah. But the KJV translators thought that "lucifer" was another name for Satan, so they kept it as Lucifer and capitalized it, instead of translating it as morning star or light bringer, etc.
If they were truly translating ONLY from the textus receptus and the original Hebrew, they wouldn't have written lucifer.